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DOCTRINE QUESTION 68
In 1 Corinthians 7:36 we read, "But if any man think he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry." Does this not teach that sex before marriage is all right, so long as they later marry?
If you wanted to wrest the scriptures you can teach about anything. If you look at the context of this verse you will notice that it is not sex that is in view, but the matter of a virgin marrying. 1 Corinthians 7:25, and 1 Corinthians 7:34. The man in question is not the boy friend, but the father of the virgin. 1 Corinthians 7:38, "So then he that giveth her in marriage doeth well; but he that giveth her not doeth better." A man never gives himself a wife he takes a wife. The father does not sin by giving his daughter in marriage, but Paul says, because of the "present distress"--1 Corinthians 7:26 it is better not to marry.
Pre-martial sex in the Bible is called "fornication." Young people are told to "Flee fornication. every sin a man doeth is without the body, but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body." 1 Corinthians 6:18. The word "fornication" means, any illicit sexual intercourse, adultery, homosexuality, intercourse with animals, etc. This sin is one of four that will characterize the last days. Revelation 9:21, "Neither repented they of their murders, nor of their sorceries (where we get our word drugs from) nor of their FORNICATION, nor of their thefts." These sins are rampant in our country and world today.
The judgment of God is at hand. It is time to repent of sin and turn to the Lord Jesus Christ the only Saviour of sinner.
All comments and questions to: Harold Smith
Updated July 2009, by Shelly Allen